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Originally Posted by Pitchwife
Actually, we do know: according to a paper by Tolkien from the 1950s/60s
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Wonderful!!! That's exactly what I hoped might happen. Thanks!

Well, if nothing else, this is good fruit of this thread. Nevertheless, that's really a minor by-the-way thing, and the major purpose is indeed solving this whole puzzle...
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The need for clarity in diplomatic negotiations sounds like a good explanation to me, but I'd like to hear some other opinions.
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Exactly, so that's what I'm hoping for and would like to hear here
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so maybe even He himself decided he couldn't get away with using his former name anymore.
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Yes, that's what I actually already had on my mind.