[Firefoot]

In RotK when Gandalf and the Mouth of Sauron are talking, the Mouth of Sauron shows everyone Frodo and Sam's stuff and names his terms, Gandalf refuses. I had always thought that this was just because the terms were absolutely ridiculous for just the return of one Hobbit. But I got to thinking: were there any more reasons that Gandalf said no way? For example, the Mouth of Sauron said "spy" and not "spies", as well as several other instances where he uses the singular and not the plural. Could Gandalf have taken this to mean (correctly) that they had only caught one Hobbit? Also, wouldn't Gandalf had known that Sauron did not have the Ring, because if he did why would Sauron have sent out his emissary to bargain with them? If he had the Ring he wouldn't need to bargain would he? He could just conquer everyone. I think that Gandalf probably would still have seen hope in the Quest if he was able to figure these things out, resulting in his "utter rejection" of the terms.

On the other hand of this, you have the description "but those nearby saw the anguish in his face, and now he seemed an old and wizened man, crushed, defeated at last. They did not doubt he would accept". This description would lead you to believe that Gandalf truly believes the Quest had failed and there is no hope. Did Gandalf start to put things together then, while the Mouth of Sauron was reading his terms?

I'm curious to see what your thoughts are on the matter.