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I'm honestly not even sure if I want to know. I love the things that Tolkien left silent (especially about Frodo) for what they are.
Personally, I think that whatever the Ring had tried in the past Frodo was able to beat down sufficiently that eventually it became a simple war of attrition. Frodo doesn't forget the Shire because he doesn't want it preserved as his mental refuge (he says WAY back in Shadow of the Past that even knowing the Shire exists will comfort him); he forgets it because that's one of his lifelines and the Ring is cutting all of them down.
And this would be the point to bring up that famous "I do not choose" line, and the brief scene where Frodo asks Sam to take his hands so he can't take the Ring. That doesn't sound like temptation to me, at least not in its classic sense.
I've seen lots of various answers to this in (where else?) fan fic but they're all based on the fanauthors' interpretations of Frodo and not on canon.
The only canon-based theory that comes to mind right now is the idea of personal recognition: Frodo despairs at Minas Morgul because he's been too late and everyone is going to be killed before he has a chance to do anything. How he masters himself is by then reminding himself that he has to do it anyway, even if no one will know. Similarly (from the same time that he talks about the Shire being a spiritual comfort) he mentions about how dull everyone there is, which when coupled with the note in Letters about how there was still probably after all this time some part of him that wanted to be recognized back home for his deeds (Frodo seems to be pretty uncomfortable with praise abroad) I think that this could have been one flaw for the Ring to exploit (if indeed we are going with that theory about the Ring's nature).
Finally, this is not a false dilemma. He could have been going through anything and more. But whatever it was that finally cracked Frodo, it must have been a pretty small temptation in its natural state if he resisted it this long.
Apologies for the rambles, but if anyone does want to get to the bottom of this (and I for one think that the "Dark Lord" interpretation, while dramatic, is too simple) I think we need to redefine some of the assumptions that go into the question.
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