[Olorin]

First of all, welcome to the Downs Liam! For a first topic, you've really sparked what will be a great conversation. [img]smilies/smile.gif[/img]

Now on to your inquiries, I have to admit, I am somewhat of a novice, but I shall do the best I can.

To answer your first question, Sauron "poured" all of his power and malice into the ring. This to me says that ring had his power. From this I educe that he must have made the ring to rule the other ring and to focus his power. Why else would he have put his power into a ring and not just kept it himself?

When the ring was cut from Sauron's hand, his body was destroyed because without the ring he had significantly less power. However, his spirit endured and still had enough power to rebuilt Baradur, et cetera. Still Sauron still needed the ring to regain his power and "cover the land in a second darkness."

Saruman thought that with the ring, he would have Sauron's power. Although this is illogical, because there is only one lord of the rings, Saruman was corrupted by power and wasn't thinking straight.

I think that without the ring Sauron didn't have enough power to be searching for the ring, concentrating on Aragorn and who knows what else at the same time. I think he must have known that the ring was close, but not exactly where.

That's all I can think of. Keep in mind, most of that is eductions. I hope this helps. If anyone has anything to add, or to correct me on something, please go ahead.