I've seen it mentioned that, because Gandalf had to get a new staff after Saruman took his, it shows that the ownership of a staff was powerful. I think the opposite: because Gandalf simply got another staff, it suggests that the original staff was not special or imbued with Valar-given powers. And, of course, that he needed to get another staff to walk easier with.
Eonwe, if the staffs were Valar-given and special because of that, then Gandalf must have been powerless from Elrond's council to the Bridge in Moria.
Edit to add: unless the Valar gave him a few staffs, and he stashed the spares in Rivendell, but I doubt this.