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Originally Posted by CSteefel
Hmmm, why is giving somebody command of an army a "demonic force". If Tolkien had meant that, why not just say "Sauron gave the Witch King command of his armies". The adjective "demonic" doesn't make much sense when applied to an army of non-magical beings (Southrons, orcs and the like)...
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It's not applied to the army, it's applied to the Witch-King's presence, which is more open and prominent. The expression does not have to mean actual demon powers; in fact, I doubt Tolkien would ever have used the phrase to mean that. It conveys a sense of the Witch-King's presence on the battle field, which was at this time especially demonical.
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Originally Posted by Raynor
Nope; not even a fraction of its efficacy and power. It is one of the occasions I repeatedly referred to when the WK uses his power at far lesser levels than the situation requires and his supposed power permits. Also, the timing of it, the fact that the WK bids his time for 14 days and uses it in his 25th hour, when Frodo is already on enemy land, beyond the waters he rightly fears, shows that this is more for show and spite than for practical uses.
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So you're saying that the Witch-King's enhancement was the new ability to use his sorcery for practical purposes rather than merely show? Because striking a person dumb and shattering his sword is every bit as demonstrative of magical powers as assisting in breaking a gate.
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Originally Posted by Raynor
I believe that's a false dichotomy. I see no reason why the phrase can't mean he received the force from Sauron too. While I agree that the phrase can be viewed from your point also, it is definitely not the only one, especially considering the larger context.
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"The larger context" is narrative decisions, which you have, up until now, felt it prudent to completely ignore. The larger context is not how the War of the Ring played out, and what kinds of measures Sauron went to; all of that is covered in Tolkien's "historical" texts, where he makes no mention of Sauron literally enhancing the Witch-King's abilities. My analysis of the sentence structure is correct, and the interjection (regarding Sauron) is presented as a reason for the stated effect.
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Originally Posted by Raynor
What different manners of death and destruction do you have in mind? And how do you know the other nazgul didn't do them?
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Whatever means the Witch-King employed in his open war against Men and Elves prior to the LotR is what I had in mind. Tolkien isn't specific about them. Do you think it was solely this power of fear that made him capable of these conquests as king of his own realm? None of the other Nazgul have this kind of history, and it's because the Witch-King is "more powerful in all ways" than the others by nature, not because of this putative late-game enhancement.