[Mithadan]

Well, it certainly wasn't just bad luck...

The concept of the curse being inescapable almost implies that it was sentient, lurking about the children and family of Hurin, looking for ways to wreak havoc. And perhaps it is; we have seen the concept of evil will separate from its "maker" almost conciously influencing events before in Tolkien's works. Namely the Ring.

Yet the Curse tended to slumber, almost as if it had little effect if not consciously attended to by Morgoth. Some of this may be attributable to Turin's sojourn in Menegroth, begind Melian's veil. Morgoth's ability to pierce the Veil was limited, and perhaps so too was the Curse impeded. Yet it cannot be said that it had no effect on Turin. Witness the killing of Saeros. Perhaps even though Turin was somewhat protected by Melian's veil, the Curse was nonetheless bound to him in a corporeal sense.

I think its also worthy of note that Tolkien, in several places, implies that Men alone of the speaking races possesses free will. I have, in the past suggested that Men were free of fate due to Eru's gift, except when men interact with Elves or the people of the Valar. Then "fate" can direct or at least influence the acts of men. Examine the nature of the way the Curse had its effect. In some ways, the Curse seemed to advance Morgoth's own purposes, resulting in the fall of not just Nargothrond but also Doriath. Fate or intent? Did Morgoth merely set the Curse free to work its evil (fate) or did he guide it (when he could) to advance his agenda?

I realize that, like the Elves, I am saying both Nay and Yea here, but there is quite a lot to chew on.

Good post High King.