[The Saucepan Man]

Originally Posted by Bêthberry

Why do you think this difference exists between the malevolent aspects of Fairie and Tolkien's versions?

In my view, because Tolkien sanitised Faerie to accord with the tenets of his faith. Hence my question:

Originally Posted by The Saucepan Man

... might it be said that, as far as Tolkien was concerned, the Christian themes within the book trumped its mythological roots?

If so, then that seems to me to be a good basis for arguing that, from the perspective of authorial intention, LoTR may properly described as a specifically Christian work, rather than simply a "universally mythological" one.