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Originally Posted by davem
If Tolkien revised the work to remove any direct reference to religion I can only assume that it was because he wanted to remove the implication ('allegory') & leave open the possibility of inference ('applicability') by the individual reader.
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We must distinguish between the two parts of what you have said:
... he wanted to....
1) remove the implication [of Christian/Theist sub-text]
2) leave open the possibility of inference by the individual reader
I agree with #2, but disagree with #1. Such an assumption would run counter to Tolkien's own words, since he did say that the work is consciously Catholic in the revision. Attempts have been made on this thread to construe Tolkien's own words as other than a clear reading shows him to have meant on this point, but tortuously ... to borrow an adjective.
