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Old 07-17-2006, 12:16 PM   #2
davem
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Join Date: Aug 2002
Location: In the home of lost causes, and forsaken beliefs, and unpopular names,and impossible loyalties
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bb
It is not 'maturity' which made Tolkien omit 'lust', but rather a function of his system of belief. Nor is it a function of modern author's scatological interest or immaturity that 'lust' appears more dominantly in modern literature. It is a function of different understanding and different beliefs.
Agreed - up to a point. Tolkien did not omit lust but when he did present it it was always in a negative light - but then it is a 'sin' in Catholic doctrine. At the same time desire is certainly present & is often positive. Beren & Luthien clearly desire each other sexually. Hence sexual desire is not omitted, but is only acceptable if it is an aspect of love, not if it exists for its own sake.

I'm not sure Tolkien idealised women - he was a sufficiently competent psychologist to be able to show his female characters as complex beings in their own right. If the men around them idealised them the was something that was going on inside them. Tolkien did not idealise his female characters, but merely had some of hiis male characters do so.

As to the idealisation of women in the primary world - perhaps, but at the periods of greatest 'idealisation' there was a corresponding denegration of 'real' women. One produced the other - though which came first I don't know.
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