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the implication is that other blades may have harmed him, but only that blade could have broken the spell & opened him up to a mortal blow. Of course, that's my reading. It does seem that its not merely a question of the power of the blade or the hand that wields it, but of the particular type of weapon used. This is common enough in myth - only a silver bullet can kill a werewolf, etc.
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That's what I thought too. For if we actually believe Aragorn:
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'This was the stroke of Frodo's sword,' he said. 'The only hurt that it did to his enemy, I fear; for it is unharmed, but all blades perish that pierce that dreadful King. More deadly to him was the name of Elbereth.'~Flight to the Ford
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Merry's sword does end up perishing, but it was the one able to break the spell. So, from this, I also got that impression...any sword can 'pierce' and harm the Witch-King, and every sword will 'perish,' but it's this blade of the Westernesse that was able to break the spell.
What I'm puzzled about now is Aragorn only says 'but all blades perish that pierce that dreadful King.' Does this mean this is only a 'spell' of the Witch-King's? For I would think if it applied to all the Nazgul, Aragorn would have said so. Or, perhaps I'm looking too far in and since Frodo stabbed at the WK, Aragorn only said him.