Do you not find this strange though
nafforc, you say,
Quote:
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"if they had wanted to have kept them from turning, they should not have given them the weakness's of the body."
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But it was not the Valar who gave them this body. As I am sure you are aware they were required to take human form, there is no specific text that shows Valar giving them such a form.
Therefore I ponder as to why Saruman who already had betrayed the Order and the Valar in his search for the One Ring and open campaign to rule Middle Earth, did not take another form, and directly challege Sauron, breaking his "human" form. Are we to suppose that there is some force that prevents them from doing so? Or did he wish to have possession of the One Ring before he did so? There is no textual evidence I have read that answers this.
Am I now straying into the realms of 'what if's', I think I am.