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Originally Posted by alatar
How can the sin of pride exist before the first sin? That's something I'd have a tough time wrapping my head around. How could Adam disobey when he did not know good from evil.
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Before the Original Sin, other "sins" were not sinful, persay- or so I would read it. In much the same was as nudity was not immodest before eating the apple. The apple was expressly forbidden. Pride, while it goeth before the Fall, was not.
Consequently, what was a risky trait before the Fall was a Sinful trait thereafter, for the entire nature of God/Man relationships had changed.
At least, that's the simple explanation, anyway. After all, there is perfectly legitimate pride in things that one has done right, done well, or has the capability to do. It is not sinful to know that one is accomplished, and be pleased with that fact.