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Originally Posted by drigel
We know why the Edain were favored by the Vala, but why were the generations of decendants of the other tribes punished for their forefather's sins? The sons of Amandil after all were not directly of royal decent, rather 2nd cousins removed. So what right did they have to rule? And why would someone from Rhun honor that right?
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Permit me a moment to sidetrack the main discussion and correct a bit of an incorrect statement you have made regarding the legitimacy of the House of Elendil to rule Middle-Earth.
You state that Amandil and his offspring were not of direct royal descent, but were in fact 2nd Cousins Removed. While this may be the case regarding their most direct kinship with the last of the Numenorean sovereigns, Ar-Pharazon and Tar-Miriel, it was not this "joint ancestry on their mother's sides" sort of kinship that Elendil based his claim to the Kingship of the Realms in Exile, but on his descent from Tar-Elendil's ELDEST child, Silmarien.
Furthermore, as the leaders of the Elendili, Elendil and his sons were already the leaders of the founding fathers of Gondor and Arnor. Why would they have lost this right to rule their followers after the destruction of Numenor? A destruction that they only escaped due to the foresight of Elendil.
As for your final statement, regarding why the Easterlings would acknowledge the rule of the Heirs of Elendil, the answer is the same as why the Welsh acknowledge the Queen of England, or the Puerto Ricans the rule of the American President, or the people of Rome the rule of the Italian government: Conquest by the peoples who DID acknowledge those parties as their proper rulers.
Okay, I've made my point...
You may return to your main discussion.