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Originally Posted by Lalwendė
This brings to mind something I've been pondering. When Saruman went along with the White Council to work to eject Sauron from Dol Guldur, was he, at that time, using the Palantir? These events took place not long before the beginning of the War of the Ring, and so we must presume that he was using it, that he may have been using it for quite a long while (he might have sought to occupy Isengard as he knew the Palantir was there). So he must have been able to cloak his thoughts and actions from Sauron at that time which begs the question why did he supposedly fall under the influence of Sauron so quickly?
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Actually, according to Gandalf, Saruman probably used the palantir for some time before he finally dared to gaze upon Barad-dur, and thus make contact with the Ithil-stone. "Then he was caught!" So he probably hadn't made contact with Sauron at the time the White Council "forced" the Necromancer out of Dol Guldur.