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Originally Posted by Ar-Pharazon
Did he actually die there? Did he die a mortals death or was he just transformed. From the movie perspective.
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This maybe assume too much - that the movie writers had a coherent philosophy/theology/metaphysics for their Middle earth in mind. I don't think they did. Rather I think they took a lot of things from the book & inserted them in the script because they liked them, & often wrongly - for instance giving Faramir's dream of the great wave to Eowyn. It makes sense in Faramir's case that he would be haunted by the destruction of Numenor, particularly in light of the fact that the enemy which threatened his people was the one responsible for that destruction. Given to Eowyn the dream loses all significance & simply becomes a nightmare inspired by what Eowyn fears will happen to herself & those she loved. There's a whole level of meaning & symbolism which is lost by doing this.
As to the question about Gandalf: I think those lines were placed in his mouth because its more or less what he says in the book (apart from being appalling English: in the book the Balrog breaks the mountainside 'where
he smote it in his ruin'. I wonder how its possible to smite someone's 'ruin' what
exactly would you be hitting? Perhaps its connected to the wa that a 'list of allies' can grow
thin 
) rather than because the writers understood Tolkien's concepts.