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Lyta, you played D&D with the wrong people. My buddies weren't so..shall we say...exacting. And math is, well, all math to me, so to speak.
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Actually, I never played it even once; I just watched it being played and read through a basic manual in 1982, thinking I might like to play it sometime. Interestingly, I didn't read LOTR until 1991!
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someone has a gun to a person's back, and you (say, as a policeman) can see that they mean to kill the person, no matter what you do. You WOULD fire to stop the person MURDERING the other, yes.
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Certainly; I suppose the real question is "did Legolas shoot for prevention or for retribution?" I haven't had a chance to watch the scene again, but it is a point that
alatar made earlier that it might be a nod of sorts to the death of Wormtongue in the Shire, since he was plugged by the archers
after he killed Saruman. I guess you could say the Shirelings shot Wormtongue out of retribution for Lotho, but could it be argued that they shot him to prevent him harming Frodo as well? It is a good argument you make,
Essex to make me rethink things like this from the book that I didn't consider before.
Cheers!
Lyta