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Since Saruman is not included in that sentence, isn't it logical that he would be lesser than Gandalf, who could be expected to master Sauron?
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This does seem to be the strongest point of evidence in favor of Gandalf being, in some general kind of way, superior to Saruman. But it's curious that in that sentence Gandalf's potential ability to defeat Sauron is explained by the fact that he is "emissary of the Powers and a creature of the same order, an immortal spirit taking a visible physical form". Certainly this description applies just as well to Saruman (or to Radagast, Alatar, or Pallando for that matter). So I would still maintain that it is
possible that the 'others' in the sentence refers to those who were actively involved in the defence against Sauron.
Unfortunately I don't have my copy of
Letters with me at the moment - but what is the context of this statement? What precedes it? To whom does 'others' refer (i.e. who has already been addressed and is being distinguished from the 'others'?)
Also bear in mind that the discussion in that letter is concerned solely with the case where Gandalf, or Galadriel, or whoever else actually has the Ring and uses it. There's a big difference between saying that Gandalf with the Ring could defeat Sauron and saying that Gandalf is more powerful than Sauron.
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I think you missed my initial response to this: no one would be able to control the Ring. Gandalf was the only person who would be successful in defeating Sauron while keeping the Ring from him, but he could not master the Ring.
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Okay, sorry. But my point stands, I think, if we substitute 'use the Ring' for 'control the Ring'. Whether one can physically defeat Sauron or not has nothing to do with moral fortitude.