I stand corrected folks! I am confused about "bearing" as well. I was operating under the assumption that the result of a ringbearer handling or holding the Ring would cause some sort of "awareness" of that instance by Sauron, of either who was doing the handling, or where it was occuring. hmmm interesting... This touches on other threads in here, but Sam ulitmately went to the West did he not? So, if bearing the Ring in fullfillment of the Oath that Frodo took at the council grants him permission, whereas Gollum, being a bearer would not have..?..? sorry I am a confused person
The only scenario i could dig myself out on my prior post is, - that Gandalf planned that situation beforehand (the prospect of having to handle the Ring at Bilbo's), and had "set aside" his ring, so that one or the other was being handled, but not BOTH at the same time..?..?
Last edited by drigel; 08-02-2004 at 03:31 PM.
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