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Originally Posted by The Saucepan Man
I wonder if there is any merit on distinguishing between oaths sworn to individuals and oaths sworn to office-holders. It might be said, for example, that Merry and Pippin both took vows to serve Theoden and Denethor as representatives of their respective realms, rather than as individuals. Aragorn certainly seems to be suggesting this when he says that Pippin's oath of allegiance is not discharged, evn though Denethor is dead and the House of Stewards no longer rule Gondor.
If so, then it might be said that they are entitled to disobey the orders of the office-holder if their actions are in fact in the best interests of the realm to which they have pledged their allegiance. Merry and Pippin both effectively disobey those to whom they have sworn an oath, namely Theoden and Denethor, and yet their actions turn out to be in the better interests of Rohan and Gondor. Aren't they therefore, in effect, fulfilling their oath rather than breaking it? The same might be said of Beregond.
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I think the oaths of Merry and Pippin can be considered as oaths to the office (trough an oath to the respective office-holders), rather than to the representative of the realms. In these mediaeval-style times the ruler
was the realm, not just a representative of it.
So, when Theoden and Denethor released Merry and Pippin from their oaths, they were released by the office-holder, but still tied by the oath to the office itself. I agree with you that they were fulfilling their oath.