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Aragorn's situation is very similar to that of Arvedui, but his claim is reinforced by his work on Gondor's behalf in the War of the Ring.
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Yet Arvedui was married to Firiel, the daughter of Ondoher and the only surviving heir.
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There have been some compelling arguments made as to why Aragorn waited until after the War to claim the throne, but as I understand it the reason why he could claim it at all was because he was the son of Arathorn AND Gilraen, thus uniting the lines of Isildur and Anarion and making him the heir to the thrones of both Gondor and Arnor.
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Then Aranarth could have had the same claim, being the son of Arvedui & Firiel. I'm a bit rusty, but where is it said that Gilraen was in the line of Anarion?
Good insights here!
