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Sauron was able to corrupt nine other kings to do what he wanted. I should think this one would be no different for him. The real question is, did Sauron actually think Ar-Pharazon could defeat the Valar (surely not) or was he just deceiving and manipulating the Numenoreans to bring about their downfall?
Also, why did the Eldar flee to Tuna when the Numenoreans arrived? A desire to avoid spilling blood in Aman more than had already happened?
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