[Carorëiel]

When I first saw FotR, I was bothered by the absence of the 17 year interval not because of the resulting change in how Frodo relates to the other hobbits, but in how it seems to make LotR a coming of age story for Frodo. It's not. In the book, Frodo has already come of age by the time he starts out on his journey. He makes a spiritual/character journey, but it is not "coming of age." There is a coming of age element in the book, but it revolves around Merry and Pippin, not Frodo. <P>I also wonder if part of the problem some people reading the book have isn't at least partly cultural. I think the British have a more finely attuned sense of class than do the Americans. Perhaps a British person would have an easier time understanding the relationship between Frodo and Sam as Tolkien wrote it? I'm assuming, of course, that people who have expressed unease at the Sam-as-servant role of the books are not British. I could be completely wrong there. <P>So, steaming ahead with likely invalid assumptions for the sake of the post, is it possible that Jackson changed the realationship between Frodo and Sam partly so the less class-conscience Americans in his audience would have a way to relate to them?<p>[ 8:45 AM January 03, 2004: Message edited by: Carorëiel ]