Though I haven't seen the movie yet *sigh*, I have this suggestion on the Pippin part. I think the reason Gandalf was frustrated because if Pippin would have had the ring, in a sense he would have been offering it up to Gondor. Offering an pledge like that from a ringbearer probably would have been disaster, especially since we just survived a near scrape like that in the two towers. And for some reason I do believe that Gandalf is trying to make it look like Pippin is the ringbearer as to buy Frodo sometime. I mean, a hobbit in the care of a wizard.....Wouldn't that seem a little suspicious? Thoughts are welcome, as I haven't seen the luscious last movie and someone might be able to give a better explanation....
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"If I knew all of the answers, I'd run for God."
~ Klinger: M*A*S*H
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