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Old 03-08-2003, 01:23 AM   #6
Bill Ferny
Shade of Carn Dûm
 
Join Date: Aug 2002
Location: Bree
Posts: 390
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Question

Aside from some familiarity with Goethe, and the German romantic philosophical tradition, my knowledge of German romantic literature, Wagner and the Sturm und Drang movement is cursory at best. However, one thing in Sharkû’s post raises a question for me.

Quote:
All, he thought, had got something very important not quite right.
In reference to Wagner, I wonder what exactly is it that he didn’t get quite right. I understand that Tolkien knew the source material first-hand, but that does not necessarily mean that those who know the source material second-hand can not come to an accurate understanding of said source material. For example, I was able to study, and I think with a good amount of accuracy, Heidegger with only a vague ability to read German (actually with no practical ability at all). I don’t think Tolkien would be so immodest as to base his judgement on linguistic ability alone.

Can it be that his judgement of Wagner is based on the Teutonic nationalism that Wagner inserts into the Elder Edda? If this is so, isn’t Tolkien, himself, guilty of a similar misstep when he inserts his own English nationalism into the Elder Edda?

If someone with more knowledge than I of both the Elder Edda and the German romantic movement could clarify this, it would be greatly appreciated.
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