Ironic, it is indeed. [img]smilies/tongue.gif[/img]. I'm sorry I misunderstood you. The thread is
NOT, however, pointless, because its goal was not to prove the lack of learned power in Middle-Earth. The purpose of this thread is in fact to discern the differences between occultic magic and the magic which Tolkien illustrates in his descriptions of Middle-Earth. Perhaps you should reread the previous posts in this thread? [img]smilies/smile.gif[/img]
Quote:
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The reason I have chosen to use the word Power is that though there is a difference between Tolkien's brand of magic and the magic used by a more classical magician, there is no word to specifically describe that difference, that my reason for starting this thread; to discern from Tolkien and the occult.
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Also, Saucepan has merely shown us that magic can be
learned, to what degree and by whom we have not yet decided. It is possible that only the powerful of Arda could learn magic, and it is also possible that such learning was gained through a sort of
grant, or
diploma given by the Valar, or Iluvatar, the only one's powerful enough to distribute new power into a being. We can also look at Saucepan's quote and say that these "bewitchments" were probably just discoveries about the materials used to make fireworks, mixed with Gandalf's previoius innate power. So, you can clearly see that this thread is not outdated, nor is my argument inapplicable. [img]smilies/tongue.gif[/img] [img]smilies/wink.gif[/img]
Iarwain
[ March 22, 2003: Message edited by: Iarwain ]