ElanorGamgee, very interesting question! I'll have to quote this again to keep myself from getting confused.
Quote:
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It is as if he is first talking of himself and another, represented as “we,” and then referring to only one person, but not necessarily himself, represented by the verb in the third person singular. But who are the “we” and the “he” of whom he speaks?
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I agree that 'we' refers to slinker/Smeagol and stinker/Gollum-- which would mean that all 'we' statements hold for both of them. For statements that only hold for Smeagol's better self, he uses I.
As you say, regardless of whether the sentence leads off with 'we' or 'I' or 'Smeagol' the verb always assumes 'he'. Whether slinker, stinker or both, Smeagol and Gollum always share only one dried-up body.
Smeagol seems to be conjugating the verb by his one and only body, but delivering the subject as 'we' or 'I' depending on how many of his personalities are involved. It makes sense: his sense of selves rules his pronouns; his one body rules his action/verbs.
[ July 14, 2002: Message edited by: Nar ]
[ July 14, 2002: Message edited by: Nar ]
[ July 14, 2002: Message edited by: Nar ]
[ July 14, 2002: Message edited by: Nar ]