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Orofacion of the Vanyar · 08-07-2002, 07:33 PM

You took the words right out of my mouth Lord Gothmong.

But in the case of the Balrog, I don't think the rings were attracted to it at all. It's known the dwarves were resistant to Sauron's attempts at controlling them, and the entire power of the ring was reduced to only inflaming the greedy nature. This tells me the dwarves had slightly more control over their rings compared to men. Therefore indirectly, Sauron released the Balrog.

It is possible however that Sauron knew what the effects the rings would be on the dwarves and then used this to increase the odds of them releasing the Balrog. It's obvious that Sauron had no control over the Balrog, if he did he would have used it at that time. So because Sauron couldn't use it for himself, why not get a people to release it so it could cause havok amongst the peoples of Middle Earth? Makes sense to me.

08-07-2002, 07:33 PM	#10
Orofacion of the Vanyar Wight Join Date: Jun 2002 Location: Clayton, NC Posts: 102	You took the words right out of my mouth Lord Gothmong. But in the case of the Balrog, I don't think the rings were attracted to it at all. It's known the dwarves were resistant to Sauron's attempts at controlling them, and the entire power of the ring was reduced to only inflaming the greedy nature. This tells me the dwarves had slightly more control over their rings compared to men. Therefore indirectly, Sauron released the Balrog. It is possible however that Sauron knew what the effects the rings would be on the dwarves and then used this to increase the odds of them releasing the Balrog. It's obvious that Sauron had no control over the Balrog, if he did he would have used it at that time. So because Sauron couldn't use it for himself, why not get a people to release it so it could cause havok amongst the peoples of Middle Earth? Makes sense to me.