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Tom, if he were Eä, would not simply be marred to the degree other inhabitants are, but incorporate all Marring and the Marrer itself.
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But is there really any difference? Arda was partially, although not wholly, marred. Its inhabitants were partially, although not wholly marred. Whether Tom were to represent that which incorporates the former or whether he was one of the latter, then either way he too would be partially, although not wholly, marred.
Also, I do not see that it follows that if Tom were the representation of Eä he would necessarily have to incorporate all of its inhabitants, including "the Marrer itself".
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hinted on the old Tolkien quote of the Oxford countryside, which is very clearly not a work of his fiction and thusly not of Eä
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True, but are we not discussing here the question of Tom's existence and status within the mythology devised by JRRT? As for his significance outside the mythology, I am rather partial to the "Bombadil as reader" theory that was posted on another thread.
[ September 04, 2003: Message edited by: The Saucepan Man ]